Preparing for the GRE can feel overwhelming, especially when you’re not sure what to expect on test day. The good news? Familiarizing yourself with sample GRE questions is one of the most effective ways to boost your confidence and improve your score. Whether you’re aiming for a competitive online master’s program or eyeing admission to a top-tier graduate school, understanding the format and question types you’ll encounter can make all the difference.
The GRE General Test underwent significant changes in September 2023, shortening the exam from nearly four hours to just under two hours. Despite the condensed format, the test still rigorously evaluates your verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and analytical writing skills. In this guide, we’ll walk through sample questions from each section, offer strategic tips, and help you understand what makes a good GRE score for your target programs.

The Graduate Record Examination (GRE) is a standardized test administered by ETS (Educational Testing Service) and is widely accepted by graduate and business schools worldwide. If you’re considering pursuing an online master’s degree, the GRE may be a key component of your application—though requirements vary by program.
The current GRE format includes:
The total testing time is approximately 1 hour and 58 minutes, with no scheduled breaks. Your Verbal and Quantitative scores each range from 130 to 170 (in 1-point increments), while Analytical Writing is scored from 0 to 6 (in half-point increments).
The Verbal Reasoning section tests your ability to analyze written material, synthesize information, and understand relationships between words and concepts. You’ll encounter three main question types: Reading Comprehension, Text Completion, and Sentence Equivalence.
Reading Comprehension makes up roughly half of the Verbal Reasoning section. You’ll read passages ranging from one paragraph to several paragraphs and answer questions about main ideas, supporting details, the author’s tone, and logical inferences.
Sample Passage:
Reviving the practice of using elements of popular music in classical compositions—an approach that had been in hibernation in the United States during the 1960s—composer Philip Glass (born 1937) embraced the ethos of popular music in his compositions. His work displays a deliberate aesthetic that challenged the boundaries traditionally separating “high” art from popular entertainment.
Question 1: The passage suggests that Philip Glass’s compositions are characterized by which of the following?
A) A rejection of all popular music influences
B) An intentional blending of classical and popular music traditions
C) A strict adherence to 1960s compositional techniques
D) A focus exclusively on instrumental arrangements
E) An avoidance of experimental approaches
Answer: B
The passage explicitly states that Glass “embraced the ethos of popular music” and challenged traditional boundaries between high art and popular entertainment, making B the correct choice.
Question 2: The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to:
A) Criticize Glass’s departure from traditional composition
B) Describe a shift in Glass’s approach to musical composition
C) Compare Glass’s work to other 1960s composers
D) Argue that popular music has no place in classical composition
E) Analyze the technical elements of Glass’s most famous works
Answer: B
Text Completion questions test your vocabulary and ability to understand how words function within context. These questions contain one to three blanks, and you must select the word or words that best complete the passage.
Question 3 (One Blank):
The scientist’s hypothesis was surprisingly _______, given the complexity of the phenomena she sought to explain.
A) convoluted
B) parsimonious
C) ambiguous
D) elaborate
E) nebulous
Answer: B (parsimonious)
The word “surprisingly” signals a contrast—you’d expect a complex phenomenon to require a complex explanation, so “parsimonious” (using the fewest assumptions or simplest explanation) creates the intended contrast.
Question 4 (Two Blanks):
The memoir’s greatest strength lies in its author’s ability to be (i) _______ about her own shortcomings while remaining (ii) _______ in her assessment of others’ motivations.
| Blank (i) | Blank (ii) |
| A) reticent | D) charitable |
| B) candid | E) dismissive |
| C) defensive | F) indifferent |
Answer: B (candid) and D (charitable)
Being “candid” (honest and direct) about one’s own shortcomings while remaining “charitable” (generous in judgment) toward others creates a balanced, admirable portrait of the memoirist.
Sentence Equivalence questions present a single sentence with one blank. You must select two answer choices that both complete the sentence and produce sentences with similar meanings.
Question 5:
The professor’s lectures were anything but _______, packed with unexpected tangents, colorful anecdotes, and thought-provoking digressions that kept students engaged.
Select two answers:
A) tedious
B) pedestrian
C) animated
D) monotonous
E) riveting
F) conventional
Answer: A (tedious) and D (monotonous)
The phrase “anything but” indicates negation. The description of “unexpected tangents” and “colorful anecdotes” suggests the lectures were the opposite of boring. Both “tedious” and “monotonous” convey dullness, so negating them produces similar meanings.
The Quantitative Reasoning section evaluates your ability to solve problems using arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and data analysis. You’ll encounter four question types: Quantitative Comparison, Multiple Choice (single answer), Multiple Choice (multiple answers), and Numeric Entry.
If you’re pursuing a STEM-focused master’s program, strong performance in this section is particularly important. According to ETS data, engineering and physical science applicants tend to have higher Quantitative scores compared to humanities applicants.
These questions ask you to compare two quantities and determine their relationship. The answer choices are always the same:
Question 6:
x > 0
| Quantity A | Quantity B |
| x² | x³ |
Answer: D
The relationship depends on the value of x. If x = 2, then x² = 4 and x³ = 8, so Quantity B is greater. But if x = 0.5, then x² = 0.25 and x³ = 0.125, so Quantity A is greater. Since different values of x yield different relationships, the answer is D.
Question 7:
A circle has a circumference of 16π.
| Quantity A | Quantity B |
| The diameter of the circle | 16 |
Answer: C
Circumference = πd, so 16π = πd, meaning d = 16. The two quantities are equal.
Question 8 (Single Answer):
A car gets 33 miles per gallon using gasoline that costs $2.95 per gallon. Approximately what is the cost of gasoline for driving 350 miles?
A) $27.50
B) $31.30
C) $35.00
D) $40.00
E) $45.50
Answer: B
Gallons needed = 350 ÷ 33 ≈ 10.6 gallons
Cost = 10.6 × $2.95 ≈ $31.27, which rounds to $31.30
Question 9 (Single Answer):
If 3x + 2y = 12 and x – y = 1, what is the value of x?
A) 2
B) 2.5
C) 2.8
D) 3
E) 3.5
Answer: C
From x – y = 1, we get x = y + 1.
Substituting: 3(y + 1) + 2y = 12
3y + 3 + 2y = 12
5y = 9
y = 1.8, so x = 2.8
Question 10 (Multiple Answers):
Which of the following integers are multiples of both 3 and 4?
Indicate all that apply.
A) 12
B) 18
C) 24
D) 32
E) 36
F) 48
Answer: A, C, E, F
Multiples of both 3 and 4 must be multiples of 12 (the LCM of 3 and 4). The multiples of 12 in the list are 12, 24, 36, and 48.
Question 11:
A rectangular garden has a length that is 3 feet more than twice its width. If the perimeter of the garden is 48 feet, what is the width in feet?
Answer: 7
Let width = w. Then length = 2w + 3.
Perimeter = 2(w) + 2(2w + 3) = 48
2w + 4w + 6 = 48
6w = 42
w = 7 feet
Question 12:
Machine A produces k liters of a solution in 10 minutes. Machine B produces the same amount in 15 minutes. How many minutes does it take both machines, working together, to produce k liters?
Answer: 6
Rate of A = k/10 liters per minute
Rate of B = k/15 liters per minute
Combined rate = k/10 + k/15 = 3k/30 + 2k/30 = 5k/30 = k/6 liters per minute
Time to produce k liters = k ÷ (k/6) = 6 minutes
The Analytical Writing section now consists of a single “Analyze an Issue” task. You have 30 minutes to develop and support your position on a given topic. This section evaluates your critical thinking, argument construction, and writing clarity.
ETS publishes the complete pool of potential essay topics on its website so that you can review and practice with actual prompts before test day.
Prompt 1:
“As people rely more and more on technology to solve problems, the ability of humans to think for themselves will surely deteriorate.”
Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.
Prompt 2:
“The best way to teach is to praise positive actions and ignore negative ones.”
Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take.
Prompt 3:
“Knowing about the past cannot help people to make important decisions today.”
Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might not hold true.
A score of 6 (the highest) is rare and requires exceptional clarity, organization, and depth. Most successful test-takers aim for a 4.0 to 5.0, which demonstrates competent analytical writing. Here’s what graders look for:
Aim for 500-600 words—long enough to develop your argument fully but concise enough to maintain quality within the time limit.
This is perhaps the most common question among prospective graduate students, and the answer depends entirely on your target programs. According to ETS data from 2023-2024:
However, “average” may not cut it for competitive programs. Here’s a general breakdown:
| Score Range | Percentile | Competitiveness |
| 150-155 | 40th-60th | Average; suitable for many programs |
| 156-162 | 60th-85th | Competitive; strong for most programs |
| 163-170 | 85th-99th | Highly competitive; ideal for top-tier programs |
If you’re applying to accredited online master’s programs, check each school’s average admitted scores or minimum requirements. Some programs publish this information on their admissions pages, while others may share it upon request.
Your target score should also account for your intended field of study:
Effective GRE preparation isn’t about cramming—it’s about strategic, consistent practice over time. Here’s a framework that works for many successful test-takers:
Most students benefit from 8-12 weeks of focused preparation. If you’re working full-time or managing other responsibilities, consider extending this to 3-4 months with lighter daily study sessions.
ETS offers free practice tests through its POWERPREP software, and its official guides contain actual retired questions. These materials most accurately reflect what you’ll see on test day.
Other high-quality resources include:
It’s tempting to practice what you’re already good at, but score improvements come from addressing weaknesses. If geometry gives you trouble, dedicate extra time to those concepts. If reading comprehension passages slow you down, practice timing strategies.
Take at least 3-4 full-length practice tests under realistic conditions: timed, uninterrupted, and without notes. This builds stamina and helps you develop pacing strategies for each section.
Here are more sample questions to help you continue your preparation:
Question 13 (Text Completion – Three Blanks):
The author’s tone throughout the essay is (i) _______, reflecting a (ii) _______ attitude toward her subject that avoids the (iii) _______ of many academic treatments of the topic.
| Blank (i) | Blank (ii) | Blank (iii) |
| A) strident | D) dismissive | G) accessibility |
| B) measured | E) balanced | H) pedantry |
| C) effusive | F) hostile | I) brevity |
Answer: B (measured), E (balanced), H (pedantry)
Question 14:
In a group of 50 students, 30 study French, 25 study Spanish, and 10 study both languages. How many students study neither French nor Spanish?
Answer: 5
Using the inclusion-exclusion principle:
Students studying at least one language = 30 + 25 – 10 = 45
Students studying neither = 50 – 45 = 5
Question 15:
The average of five consecutive integers is 42. What is the largest of these integers?
Answer: 44
If the average is 42, the middle number (third integer) is 42.
The five consecutive integers are: 40, 41, 42, 43, 44.
The current GRE General Test takes approximately 1 hour and 58 minutes. This includes one Analytical Writing section (30 minutes), two Verbal Reasoning sections (41 minutes combined), and two Quantitative Reasoning sections (47 minutes combined). The test format was shortened from nearly four hours in September 2023.
Mastering the GRE takes time, practice, and strategic preparation. By working through sample GRE questions across all sections, understanding the test format, and developing effective study habits, you’ll be well-positioned to achieve a competitive score.
Remember that the GRE is just one component of your graduate school application. Strong letters of recommendation, a compelling personal statement, relevant experience, and a solid academic record all contribute to a successful application. Focus on doing your best, but don’t let test anxiety overshadow the bigger picture of your graduate school journey.
Start practicing with the sample questions in this guide, explore official ETS resources, and create a study plan that works for your schedule. With consistent effort and the right approach, you’ll walk into test day confident and prepared.
Sources: Educational Testing Service (ETS), official GRE preparation materials, and current GRE score interpretive data (2023-2024).